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ICVA NAVLEFree North American Veterinary Licensing Examination practice test
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10 real ICVA NAVLE practice questions with instant answers and explanations — no account, no credit card, no email. Score yourself, then unlock the full bank of 800 questions whenever you’re ready. The ICVA NAVLE passing score is Scaled score of 425 (criterion-referenced; ICVA-recommended minimum).
A 9-year-old spayed female Poodle presents with polyuria, polydipsia, a pot-bellied appearance, and bilaterally symmetric truncal alopecia. Which diagnostic test is most appropriate to confirm a diagnosis of hyperadrenocorticism?
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Q1. A 9-year-old spayed female Poodle presents with polyuria, polydipsia, a pot-bellied appearance, and bilaterally symmetric truncal alopecia. Which diagnostic test is most appropriate to confirm a diagnosis of hyperadrenocorticism?
Correct answer: A. Low-dose dexamethasone suppression test
The low-dose dexamethasone suppression test is a standard screening and confirmatory test for canine Cushing's disease, and the signalment and clinical signs strongly support pursuing adrenal function testing.
Q2. A 12-year-old cat presents with weight loss despite a good appetite, tachycardia, and a palpable thyroid nodule. Serum total T4 is markedly elevated. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Correct answer: A. Hyperthyroidism
Weight loss with a good appetite, tachycardia, a palpable thyroid nodule, and elevated total T4 are classic for feline hyperthyroidism.
Q3. A horse presents with acute colic. Rectal palpation reveals a distended, gas-filled loop of large colon and a taut band crossing dorsally near the left kidney and spleen. Which condition is most consistent with these findings?
Correct answer: A. Nephrosplenic (left dorsal) entrapment of the large colon
A gas-distended colon with a taut band palpable over the nephrosplenic ligament is the classic rectal finding of left dorsal displacement/nephrosplenic entrapment.
Q4. A dairy cow shows decreased appetite, a drop in milk production, and a high-pitched 'ping' on simultaneous auscultation and percussion over the left paralumbar fossa. Which condition is most likely?
Correct answer: A. Left displaced abomasum
A resonant ping localized to the left paralumbar fossa on simultaneous auscultation-percussion is the hallmark finding of a left displaced abomasum.
Q5. A production swine facility reports increased late-term abortions, stillbirths, and weak-born piglets, along with respiratory disease in growing pigs. Which diagnostic approach best confirms porcine reproductive and respiratory syndrome virus (PRRSV) infection?
Correct answer: A. RT-PCR on serum or oral fluid samples
RT-PCR on serum or herd-level oral fluid samples is the standard method to detect PRRSV RNA and confirm active infection.
Q6. A flock of unvaccinated young chickens develops torticollis, unilateral leg paralysis, and gray iris discoloration. Necropsy reveals lymphoid tumor infiltration of peripheral nerves and visceral organs. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Correct answer: A. Marek's disease
Marek's disease, caused by an alphaherpesvirus, classically produces peripheral nerve enlargement, leg/wing paralysis, gray iris (ocular lymphoma), and lymphoid tumors in young unvaccinated birds.
Q7. A dog presents in hypovolemic shock with weakness, vomiting, and hyperpigmentation of the skin. Serum electrolytes show sodium 128 mEq/L and potassium 6.8 mEq/L (sodium:potassium ratio less than 23:1). Which diagnosis is most consistent with these findings?
Correct answer: A. Hypoadrenocorticism (Addison's disease)
A low sodium:potassium ratio combined with hyperpigmentation, weakness, and hypovolemia is classic for hypoadrenocorticism caused by mineralocorticoid deficiency.
Q8. A cat presents for a wellness exam prior to adoption into a multi-cat household. Which point-of-care test screens for both feline leukemia virus antigen and feline immunodeficiency virus antibody in a single run?
Correct answer: A. ELISA-based combination snap test
In-clinic combination ELISA snap tests simultaneously detect FeLV p27 antigen and FIV antibody and are the standard screening tool before introducing cats to a household.
Q9. A horse shows asymmetric ataxia, focal muscle atrophy, and multiple cranial nerve deficits. Which finding on cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) analysis best supports a diagnosis of equine protozoal myeloencephalitis (EPM)?
Correct answer: A. A positive Sarcocystis neurona antibody titer with an elevated serum:CSF antibody ratio indicating intrathecal antibody production
Because Sarcocystis neurona antibodies can cross an intact blood-CSF barrier, a comparative serum:CSF titer ratio (rather than a single positive serum or CSF titer) is needed to demonstrate local antibody production consistent with EPM.
Q10. A dairy herd has persistent poor calf growth, intermittent diarrhea, and increased respiratory disease. The herd veterinarian suspects a bovine viral diarrhea virus (BVDV) persistently infected (PI) animal is present. Which testing approach best identifies a PI animal?
Correct answer: A. Ear-notch antigen-capture ELISA or PCR, with retesting at least 3 weeks later if positive to rule out transient infection
Ear-notch antigen-capture ELISA or PCR detects viral antigen in skin regardless of maternal antibody, and a positive result must be confirmed on retest 3 or more weeks later because acutely, transiently infected calves can also test positive once.
Exam facts and objectives sourced from the official ICVA (NAVLE) certification page. Last reviewed June 2026.
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