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CompTIA Project+Free Project Management of Software Development practice test
10 real CompTIA Project+ practice questions with instant answers and explanations — no account, no credit card, no email. Score yourself, then unlock the full bank of 860questions whenever you’re ready. The CompTIA Project+ passing score is 710 / 900.
A key engineer has already resigned and departed from an organization, leaving an active project without anyone capable of performing critical technical work. Where should this situation be recorded?
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All 10 CompTIA Project+ questions & answers
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Q1. A key engineer has already resigned and departed from an organization, leaving an active project without anyone capable of performing critical technical work. Where should this situation be recorded?
Correct answer: D. Issue log
Because the engineer has already departed, this is a realized problem — an issue — not a future possibility. Issues are tracked in the issue log. Risks describe potential future events and belong in the risk register. The business case is created early in the project lifecycle and is not used to track execution-phase problems. A change control log records proposed modifications to the project, not issues.
Q2. In project risk management terminology, what is the standard name for a positive risk?
Correct answer: D. Opportunity
A positive risk is a potential future event with favorable outcomes; the standard term for it is an opportunity. Response strategies for opportunities include Exploit, Share, Enhance, and Accept. Strength and Threat are components of SWOT analysis, not risk classifications. Quantitative refers to numerical analysis methods.
Q3. Before starting work on an upcoming product, a designer holds a session with target users to explore their needs and gather input on use cases. Which category of project meeting does this represent?
Correct answer: D. Collaborative
A session focused on gathering input and brainstorming with participants — such as a focus group — is a collaborative meeting. Collaborative meetings include workshops, JAD sessions, brainstorming, and focus groups. Informative meetings deliver information to attendees. Decisive meetings result in a specific decision.
Q4. A project has a total budget of $100,000 and a six-month timeline. At the three-month mark, the Earned Value (EV) is $50,000 and the Actual Cost (AC) is $60,000. What is the project's Cost Variance (CV)?
Correct answer: A. –$10,000
Cost Variance is calculated as CV = EV – AC. Substituting the values: $50,000 – $60,000 = –$10,000. A negative Cost Variance means the project is spending more than the value it has produced — in this case it is $10,000 over budget.
Q5. A project manager and an engineering subject-matter expert are meeting to evaluate a stakeholder's request to substitute a lower-cost component. Their agenda covers cost implications, schedule impact, quality effects, risk changes, and whether additional training or new staff would be required. What activity are they performing?
Correct answer: B. Conducting an impact assessment
Analyzing the potential cost, schedule, quality, risk, and resource implications of a proposed change is the definition of an impact assessment. The change should already be documented in the change control log before this meeting takes place. A Change Control Board (CCB) may later act on the impact assessment findings, but forming one is not what is being described.
Q6. A project manager is collaborating with finance and engineering to define budget requirements and will later develop the project schedule. Which project management phase does this work fall under?
Correct answer: B. Planning
Defining budget parameters and building a project schedule are Planning phase activities. Planning follows Initiating and Discovery/Concept, and precedes Executing. It establishes the baseline for scope, cost, schedule, and risk management.
Q7. Every two weeks, a project manager hosts a meeting to share updates on budget status, risk exposure, and milestone progress. Which type of project meeting is this?
Correct answer: B. Informative
A meeting whose primary purpose is delivering information to attendees — such as a status update on budget, risks, and milestones — is classified as an informative meeting. Decisive meetings produce a decision. Collaborative meetings focus on brainstorming or joint problem-solving. Task setting is a subtype of decisive meetings.
Q8. A project stakeholder spends most of their time interviewing end users and other stakeholders to capture and document detailed requirements for IT projects. Which project role BEST fits this description?
Correct answer: D. Business analyst
A business analyst focuses on eliciting, defining, and documenting requirements, typically working closely with end users during early project phases. A Subject-Matter Expert (SME) contributes deep domain knowledge but does not primarily gather requirements. A Project Management Office (PMO) provides standards and governance across multiple projects. A project manager oversees the entire project lifecycle.
Q9. A quality control manager wants a visual tool showing whether manufactured products have an acceptable defect rate — neither too many defects nor unnecessary over-quality that inflates cost. Which chart type is BEST suited for this purpose?
Correct answer: D. Control chart
A control chart plots process measurements against an upper control limit (beyond which defect prevention becomes cost-prohibitive) and a lower control limit (below which quality is unacceptably poor). Staying near the mean between these limits balances cost and quality. A run chart tracks trends over time. A flowchart maps process steps logically. An Ishikawa diagram identifies the sources of a problem.
Q10. A software development team holds a sprint planning session to select which backlog items they will complete over the next two-week iteration. Which category of project meeting does this represent?
Correct answer: C. Decisive
Sprint planning meetings result in a decision — which work items the team commits to for the upcoming sprint. That makes this a decisive meeting. Informative meetings share information without requiring a decision. Workshops are collaborative meetings. Standups are brief informative check-ins, not decision-making sessions.
Exam facts and objectives sourced from the official CompTIA certification page. Last reviewed June 2026.
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