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AMCB CNMFree Certified Nurse-Midwife practice test
10 real AMCB CNM practice questions with instant answers and explanations — no account, no credit card, no email. Score yourself, then unlock the full bank of 800questions whenever you’re ready. The AMCB CNM passing score is Scaled passing score set by AMCB (criterion-referenced).
A 22-year-old patient with a regular 30-day menstrual cycle comes to the clinic reporting no menstrual period for 7 weeks. How is amenorrhea classified as a sign of pregnancy?
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All 10 AMCB CNM questions & answers
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Q1. A 22-year-old patient with a regular 30-day menstrual cycle comes to the clinic reporting no menstrual period for 7 weeks. How is amenorrhea classified as a sign of pregnancy?
Correct answer: C. It is a presumptive sign of pregnancy.
Amenorrhea is classified as a presumptive sign of pregnancy. Positive signs include fetal heart tones, ultrasound confirmation of pregnancy, or palpation of fetal movement by the provider. Probable signs include uterine enlargement, Hegar's sign, Goodell's sign, Piskacek's sign, ballottement, Braxton Hicks contractions, and a positive pregnancy test.
Q2. A 24-year-old primigravida at 29 weeks gestation has a fundal height measurement of 34 cm. What is the most appropriate next step in management?
Correct answer: C. Order an ultrasound
A fundal height that is significantly larger than expected for gestational age may indicate macrosomia, polyhydramnios, or multiple gestation. An ultrasound is warranted to clarify the cause. Continuing routine care without investigation risks missing complications. Bed rest is not indicated based on fundal height alone. Dietary modification is premature without first establishing the underlying reason for the discrepancy.
Q3. A 24-year-old woman at 20 weeks gestation has a serum alpha-fetoprotein (AFP) result 2.5 times the median value. What is the most appropriate next step?
Correct answer: B. Schedule a targeted anatomy ultrasound
Elevated AFP can signal neural tube defects, abdominal wall defects, or multiple gestations. A targeted anatomy ultrasound is the most appropriate first step to identify these conditions. Amniocentesis is more invasive and is generally reserved for cases with high suspicion of chromosomal anomalies. Repeating AFP in two weeks is less diagnostic than ultrasound and may delay important findings. Forgoing follow-up risks missing a significant abnormality.
Q4. A 25-year-old woman at 30 weeks gestation is found to have polyhydramnios on ultrasound. Which condition is most commonly linked to this finding?
Correct answer: A. Gestational diabetes
Gestational diabetes causes fetal hyperglycemia, which drives increased fetal urination and leads to polyhydramnios. Fetal anemia can contribute to hydrops fetalis and be associated with polyhydramnios, but gestational diabetes is the more common etiology. Twin-to-twin transfusion syndrome can cause polyhydramnios in the recipient twin, but this is specific to monochorionic twin pregnancies. Placental insufficiency usually results in oligohydramnios from reduced fetal urine production.
Q5. A 26-year-old G1P0 woman at 12 weeks gestation has blood pressure readings of 160/100 mmHg on two separate occasions. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Correct answer: C. Chronic hypertension
Hypertension identified before 20 weeks gestation is consistent with chronic hypertension, as gestational hypertensive disorders typically arise after 20 weeks. Gestational hypertension is defined as new-onset hypertension after 20 weeks without proteinuria. Preeclampsia requires hypertension plus proteinuria or end-organ dysfunction, also emerging after 20 weeks. White coat hypertension would need readings obtained in multiple settings for confirmation.
Q6. A 26-year-old woman at 16 weeks gestation has a triple screen showing low AFP, elevated hCG, and normal estriol. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Correct answer: B. Down syndrome
Low AFP combined with elevated hCG is a classic triple screen pattern associated with Down syndrome (Trisomy 21). Neural tube defects typically produce elevated AFP. Trisomy 18 (Edwards syndrome) is associated with low levels of AFP, hCG, and estriol simultaneously. A normal pregnancy does not match this pattern of analyte results.
Q7. A 27-year-old G2P1 woman at 24 weeks gestation has a one-hour glucose challenge test result of 150 mg/dL. What is the most appropriate next step?
Correct answer: B. Perform a three-hour glucose tolerance test
An abnormal one-hour glucose challenge test requires confirmation with a three-hour glucose tolerance test before diagnosing gestational diabetes. A single elevated screening result is not diagnostic on its own. Repeating the same one-hour screen is not an appropriate diagnostic approach. Continuing routine care without further evaluation would be inappropriate given the abnormal result.
Q8. A 27-year-old woman at 24 weeks gestation complains of excessive thirst, frequent urination, and unexplained weight loss, with an otherwise unremarkable history. Which test is most appropriate to confirm the suspected diagnosis?
Correct answer: A. Oral glucose tolerance test
The oral glucose tolerance test (OGTT) is the gold standard for diagnosing gestational diabetes mellitus in a patient with no prior history of diabetes. Hemoglobin A1c reflects long-term glucose control and is not used as the primary test for gestational diabetes. Fasting blood glucose can suggest hyperglycemia but is not the definitive test for gestational diabetes. Urine glucose testing lacks the specificity and sensitivity needed to diagnose gestational diabetes mellitus.
Q9. A 27-year-old woman at 25 weeks gestation is found on ultrasound to have placenta previa. She has no current bleeding or contractions. What is the most appropriate management approach?
Correct answer: D. Conservative expectant management
In a clinically stable patient with no active bleeding or uterine contractions, placenta previa is managed conservatively with expectant observation. Cesarean delivery is reserved for maternal or fetal compromise. Tocolytics may be used if preterm labor coexists, but are not indicated for placenta previa alone. Rh immune globulin administration is relevant for Rh-negative patients but does not constitute management of placenta previa.
Q10. A 28-year-old G2P1 woman at 25 weeks gestation reports flu-like symptoms for three days; her coworker was recently diagnosed with parvovirus B19. What is the most significant fetal risk associated with maternal parvovirus B19 infection?
Correct answer: C. Hydrops fetalis
Parvovirus B19 infection during pregnancy can cause severe fetal anemia leading to hydrops fetalis, which is the primary fetal concern. Neural tube defects, intrauterine growth restriction, and premature rupture of membranes are not characteristic complications of parvovirus B19.
Exam facts and objectives sourced from the official AMCB (American Midwifery Certification Board) certification page. Last reviewed June 2026.
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